The Bible Scholars' Forum

I have a problem understanding this phrase: "the strength of sin is the law". Maybe someone could show to me in what way is the law the strenght (power) of sin? Preferably from the Scripture.

Simple logic, really.

1 John 3:4 defines "sin" as "the trangression of the Law."

If the Law did not exist, literally, then neither would sin.

Accordingly, sin would be powerless and could exert no effect on us as humans.

But, since the Law does exist, so does sin. Because we are all sinners, the Law gives sin power, especially over us.

However, even though "the strength of sin is the Law," the Law itself is: eternal (Psa. 111:7-8; Psa. 119:44, 112, 152), spiritual (Rom. 7:14), righteous (Psa. 119:172), perfect (Psa. 19:7), good (Rom. 7:12), just (Rom. 7:12), pure (Psa. 19:8 ), love (Rom. 13:10), light (Pro. 6:23), truth (Psa. 119:142), and holy (Rom. 7:12). It is also called the perfect law of liberty (Jam. 1:25, 2:12), the royal law (Jam. 2:8 ), and a blessing to those who obey (Deut. 11:26-27; 30:1-20).

This phrase has been misunderstood by many. That explains the hatred for the Law found among some Christian denominations.

Logic/ Illogic:

No Law = No Sin

So is Law = Sin?

If Law = Sin, then should we hate the Law?

There is a flaw in the above logic.

Law makes us aware of Sin, but Law itself is not Sin. If that is the case, then it is either we love the Law or hate the Law as it is the knowledge of the Law that keeps us away from Sin by following the Law, or to sin willfully by breaking the Law.

Were you referring to "my logic" as the "above logic" which was flawed, or the example you provided as the "above logic"?

Sorry, I was referring to this:

Thank you for clarifying, Truth Lover.

Thank you for your responses.

Maybe it is simple and logical but unfortunately not for me. I must admit I do not understand Shaul in many places, and this is one of them. "If the law did not exist " is so academic, for me pointless to consider, since I cannot remove the law (which is holy, eternal, etc). So, I still "do not get it". I just can't imagine life without the law, "the perfect law of liberty" (James 1:25). Maybe it is just too simple. Or maybe it is about the future, when there will be no death? And no law, and no sin?

As you mentioned, if the Law is eternal, then how can there be a time without Law?

However, I do understand your point about Paul.

Sometimes Paul is difficult to understand, just as Peter stated (2 Pet. 3:15-17).

Is the Law and the Law of Moses the same?

Yes. Exactly, I put that question mark both to the "maybe" and to the "no law?". Just wondering, if in the world to come, there will be no sin, and the power of sin is the law, so maybe, there will be no law? No law as we understand it now (a set of rules, breaking of which equates with sinning)?

Added in Edit: "until heaven and earth pass away, not one letter, not one stroke of a letter, will pass from the law until all is accomplished" Mt 5:18. But what when it is accomplished?

Everyone wrote before the NT was ever canonized.

What other Law could they have been talking about?

Questions...

What did Paul preach out of when he spoke in the synagogues?
What did Paul preach from regarding the kingdom?
What did he use to prove that Yeshua was the Messiah?

Acts 13:15 And after the reading of the law and the prophets the rulers of the synagogue sent unto them, saying, Ye men and brethren, if ye have any word of exhortation for the people, say on.

Acts 28:23 And when they had appointed him a day, there came many to him into his lodging; to whom he expounded and testified the kingdom of God, persuading them concerning Jesus, both out of the law of Moses, and out of the prophets, from morning till evening.

By the way, it's not just "the Law of Moses." Albeit, it is called that, but only on account of Moses' being the servant who transcribed it onto scrolls.

Who ultimately promulgated the Law? Who told Moses to transcribe it? God did.

That is why in Nechemiah 10:29 it is "God's law which was given by Moses the servant of God."

T'is a good question indeed, but unfortunately, it can only be answered by suppositions, for the Bible itself only takes us up to New Jerusalem coming down from Heaven (Rev. 21:2) and God being "all in all" (1 Cor. 15:28). What happens after that, besides being extraordinary, is anyone's guess.

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